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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 23.06.2025 01:52

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What has been your best sexual experience?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

How conservative the Japanese people really is? And the government?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Why don't the 'West' realize that the solution to the conflict in the Middle East is to end the "unlimited" support for Israel, and finally listen to the grievances of Israel's neighbors for a 'change'?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.